Earlier quoted context omitted.
>They're not restricting Firefox on the basis of some policy that applies to everyone but singling out one piece of software. >Framing this using Apple and it's policies/practices are an attempt at misdirection. If you take this attempt to play the Apple v. Microsoft card out of the equation and for a moment pretend Apple never banned FF and FF never even tried to get on iOS what you're left with is Microsoft unfairl…
I resent the implication that I'm a troll first off. Secondly, after reading a lot of the responses to what I wrote I feel like I've been vindicated. I have to admit that I was wrong about Microsoft arbitrarily applying policies unfairly. I plead ignorance on that one. I honestly though I knew what I was talking about. However, I feel like most of these comments just reinforce my point about how this article frames t…
First of all I think we can agree that Apple's actions with iOS and Microsoft's actions with Windows RT are exactly equivalent.
>The question is "are Microsoft's actions in this case monopolistic? Now because the answer to that question is most likely yes..."
How can they be monopolistic when they have zero marketshare in the tablet market and exactly zero apps from their Win32 monopoly will even run on the new platform?
If you think the answer is yes, then is Apple guilty of the same?
> Let's say Apple is wrong which is the implication here. If that's true then so is Microsoft.
Not necessarily, because Apple has a way larger marketshare in the tablet market. Your argument is like claiming in 2000 that it would be an anti-trust issue for Apple to bundle their browser with their computers.