Earlier quoted context omitted.
I think the idea of a (near) 50/50 split is that if there were absolutely no biases or differences then you would see approximately this distribution. But we don't. We do know there are social biases, and thus these are being scrutinized much more. Certainly there can biological biases, but is is absurd to believe that is the only factor involved. My guess is that there is a whole complicated mess of problems and not…
Why does it matter if the differences are biological, cultural, or both? If women have the option to go into STEM without risking social exclusion(which is arguably the case in most developed countries) yet they choose to do something else, shouldn't that be their choice? Wouldn't these unequal trends naturally result in an environment with equal opportunities among people with different overall desires?
> Why does it matter if the differences are biological, cultural, or both?
> If women have the option to go into STEM without risking SOCIAL (ie: culture) exclusion yet they choose to do something else, shouldn't that be their choice?
I'd say it matters if it is social exclusion. If a bias is caused by biology, then that's fine. But clearly there shouldn't be a cultural bias, because that prevents people from making that choice. I see the problem solved when there are no cultural or political barriers.