> PPP is a misleading figure. If your PPP-adjusted income is 2 times higher than someone's else does it mean that you can buy 2 times more MacBooks or trips to Korea?
You're looking for "discretionary income" minus groceries (not to be confused with disposable income), because GDP does not tell you that (PPP adjusted or not) and PPP adjusted income doesn't tell you that either. Also you kind of made a jump from (per capita) GDP to income, which is related, but not the same thing.
To answer your question: In your example it may either be more or less, because PPP really does not say much for anything but your chosen basket of goods.
Example: Person A earns $2000 and spends $750 to meet standard of living X, while another person B also earns $2000 but has to spend $1500 to meet that same standard.
Adjusted for PPP using that standard of living/basket of goods X, Person A earns twice as much.
Let's assume that MacBooks and trips to Korea generally cost the same for both people. Person B has $500 left over to pay for such things, while Person A has $1250 left - more than twice!
I easily could have chosen numbers such that it was less than twice. I could also have chosen them such that one person, while appearing richer purely based on non-adjusted income, can in fact afford less of everything. Obviously you can also make it so that one person can afford less luxuries than the other despite appearing richer adjusted for PPP.
You can try to fix this by making any luxuries you're interested in part of your basket of goods. While you're still comparing an entire basket, at least you'll know how often each person could purchase that entire basket compared to each other.
The point I'm trying to make is that while you still have to be careful to understand what PPP adjusted numbers are telling you, non-adjusted numbers aren't any better and in fact are probably more misleading for what you appear to be interested in.