Earlier quoted context omitted.
Even so, this particular statement is factual: Belgians are about 50% of the newborn in Belgium. In Sweden numbers are less certain, but it's less than 60%, somewhere between 50% and 60%, so Swedes are likely to end up being a minority in Sweden, possibly a quite small minority, and the same with Belgians in Belgium.
Are these 50% of newborns Belgians/Swedes by some divine right? Why aren't the rest Belgians/Swedes?
(/s or whatever the appropriate way is of disassociating myself from this idea)