Earlier quoted context omitted.
I know of at least one source arguing that in fact, population health (mainly obesity and gun violence) explain upwards of 70% of the difference in healthcare spending between the US and other developed nations.[1] To me, this seems like the most likely explanation because I believe we have pretty similar diagnostics and treatments to other developed countries, and I don't feel like a British doctor would give me any…
It is very expensive to run the insurance companies, plus all the time the hospitals need to spend to talk/plead with the insurance companies. When you have the state as a single payer then all those expenses just vanishes.
The difference is that in these systems the government has some stake — whether it’s providing the public insurance fund, or owning the company itself — so that the government is financially incentivized to reduce costs.
In the US case everything is private so all parties are incentivized to increase costs as much as possible.
We really should to copy the Bismarck model. Public owned “public fund”, heavily regulated private insurance and care.