Earlier quoted context omitted.
What is the implication of M2?
It's the amount of money in the economy, and its growth is one measure of inflation. GP may be commenting that the "good times" of super-high valuations are about to come back thanks to inflation. That isn't the financial datum that really matters, though - what matters for P/E ratios is the risk free rate (which establishes the discount rate for the time value of money), which is still very high.
Where's the research showing the empirical relationship between P/E ratios and the risk free rate?
Also, we are living in a a time of unprecedented monetary aggregate growth (for the US at least). I posit his why the yield curve has been inverted for so long and yet there is no recession in sight. The predictive power of asset prices seemingly no longer exists.