Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Blackboards are not black, they are grey Yes, and tennis shoes aren't only used for tennis. What you wrote is not correct. First, I assume you are not making the technically-correct-only assertion that since everything, including Vantablack, reflects some light, it isn't truly black but only a dark shade of grey. Quoting Wikipedia, "Blackboards were originally made of smooth, thin sheets of black or dark grey slate…
You could be right, but using your favourite n-gram viewer, it looks like there is a relationship https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=%28chalkboard+... Any thoughts on that apparent correlation? My (implicit) assertion was: in times of racial tension, people avoid(ed) using the word 'black' not wanting to appear racist. That seems reasonable to me, could there be some causal relation in the other direction?
"TV" to "civil rights" - https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=TV%2C%28civil+...
"Plastic" to "civil rights" - https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=plastic%2C%28c...
"Pakistan" to "civil right" - https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=%28Pakistan%29...
The site https://tylervigen.com/spurious-correlations shows a lot of spurious correlations.
What I did instead was present a claim (Wikipedia links to https://books.google.com/books?id=sl5GAwAAQBAJ&pg=PT45 and also describes the technology that made colored chalkboards popular), then double-checked that Ngram was consistent with the claim.
> That seems reasonable to me
Yes, that's because your hypersensitivity is kicking in.
It's causing you to reject the actual reasons given at the time in favor of your pet theory.
I've presented two direct quotes from the 1950s saying the reason for switching to "chalkboard" is because the new boards were not black.
You instead prefer to think these sources were hiding the truth, apparently in order to cover up hypersensitivty to the word "black".
Another problem with your pet theory is that in the 1950s black people were generally referred to as "colored" or "Negro". "Black" didn't start replacing "Negro" until the 1960s. Your James Brown citation is from the late 1960s, for example.
Your belief is that large numbers of people in the 1950s were so hypersensitive to the word "black", because someday in the future it might be used to refer to colored people, that they switched from "blackboard" to "chalkboard"?
While at the same time large numbers of people enforced racial segregation and discrimination.
Your pet theory would need a LOT of historical supporting evidence to hold any water. So, where's your evidence?