Earlier quoted context omitted.
The same thing applies when the statement is applied to men or any of the other demographic groups that it's applied to from time to time.
What's your justification for "the thing that applies to black people should be equally applicable to men"? That's what this argument boils down to
We know that there is a large sentencing disparity among both women/men and white/black people who are convicted, even when controlling for everything imaginable. We know that there are significant differences in the social and cultural expectations that are usually placed on both women/men and white/black people, and we know that there are on average psychological differences between both women/men and white/black people. The base assumption and the analysis required to come to a conclusion should be the same. The conclusion may or may not be the same.