Earlier quoted context omitted.
My question is: why does the FDA need to (get domestic pharma companies to) conduct its own studies here? If the drug has been used in Europe for 30 years, presumably there are 30 years of evidence in European clinical practice that can be used as evidence. Maybe even existing meta-analyses of said evidence in European medical journals. Why isn't that sufficient?
I'd trust European data more than , say chinese or pakistani data. However, that kind of exclusivity is politically untenable.
Similar rules are applied to passports and driving licenses too, some countries are trusted more than others.