Earlier quoted context omitted.
Isn't a limitation of Kant's view that intention is all that matters? In other words, neither context or outcome change the morality of the action?
Kants moral philosophy (the categorical imperative) is deontological, which means it is based on the action (and only the action) itself. Intent and Outcome are important in other moral philosophies, but for Kant these were hypothetical imperatives: Nothing more than mere whishes, nothing concrete. For him, moral philosophy should be based on concrete, testable tenets, which have to be unconditionally true (categoric…
I know this is a bit of an ad hominem and an aside, but is it true that Kant was a loner? Do you think his idealist worldviews contributed to that, I.e., his moral philosophy is more fit for theoretical and academic discussions rather than applied in practice, in the sense that philosophy is aimed at living a better life?