Can this be quantified somehow? Show some evidence people in some place that has been studied are having sex less often now or in the recent past compared to some more distant past?
I spent about 20 minutes trying to find some series of historical surveys somewhere, and meanwhile 65 comments popped up with their own personal beliefs on why people are having less sex, but none of those comments and the article itself don't present any actual evidence that people are having less sex. What they do show is people, at least in the US and most OECD nations, are having fewer lifetime children. But that is clearly explainable by widespread availability and use of contraceptives and protected sex or even by the increasing popularity of anal sex. It doesn't require that people not have sex at all.
I'm not saying this claim is wrong necessarily, but if this is going to be discussed, shouldn't we have some evidence allowing us to quantify to what extent there has actually been a decrease, where this has happened, and over what span of time it has happened?