Earlier quoted context omitted.
Not to the same extent because the rise in your own home's value mirrors the rise in value of the bigger place.
I've seen this argument in many places yet I'm not sure the math holds up. For example a house that costs 1000$ goes up in value by 20% = 1200$. Over the same period a 2000$ bigger house goes up by the same amount = 2400$. If you wanted to buy the bigger house before the increase you would have loaned 1000$, but now since the increase you'll have to pay 1200$. Is there a catch I'm missing somewhere or what ?
At least in CA, home prices for typical working class folks have risen much faster than homes that were already expensive. This makes it possible to jump into the next price band once enough equity has been built up on a "starter" home.