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Is there such a thing as good taste?

paulgraham.com

391–400 of 479 posts

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#391
You could say the same thing about music, but I know some perfectly executed but 'dead' music and the same piece by some amateur nobody ever heard of executed in a (far) less than perfect way that yet manages to make it come alive somehow. I've always been wondering what that quality is but I don't think any arguments about logic are going to settle it, if execution is all there is to good taste then a lot of well executed art would be valuable and yet it isn't.

Piet Mondriaan is a nice example: the execution could have been done by anybody willing to spend the time and the effort, but somehow the paintings have a value that well exceeds the association I have with the skills required to compose and execute them. I know a few painters that are off the scale good whose work will never be worth more than the materials cost, never mind their time.

Good taste is in the eye of the beholder, as well as what people agree on is good taste.

It's much easier to label something bad taste than to have a meaningful argument about what is mediocre taste or good taste. It's like trying to define culture in terms of observable facts about reality, instead of a living thing, the lens through which we perceive everything, including the frameworks we use to reason about things. You can't really measure anything with a yardstick made of rubber and springs.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#392

Wrote professionally about taste in a previous life. It is related more closely than we expect to techne or competence from physical knowledge. When we think of poor taste, we tend to think of symbols that are separated from their function and meaning, where instead of representing that, "I do this thing," something gaudy says, "I have this thing!" That's what crassness is, and it comes down to our relative apprehens…

Not sure that power is a sufficiently discriminating term for what you are describing. I agree with you but think that purposiveness may be a better fit.

What a tasteful word substitution.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#393
post #118

I had the opposite conversation with my father. I claimed "there's no accounting for taste" and my father said "that's not true, you can claim Shakespeare isn't good but you're wrong". For judgements of taste, no one is better than Kant. I recommend this essay: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/aesthetic-judgment/ In Kantian aesthetics, judgements of taste are subjective (because they differ between people) but are…

>my father said "that's not true, you can claim Shakespeare isn't good but you're wrong". Could not disagree more. Your father can claim Shakespeare is good, but that doesn't make him right. I think Shakespeare is good, but that's a subjective opinion and holds no more weight than someone who thinks Dan Brown is a better writer /shudder.

Given that Dan Brown is alive and that Shakespeare is well and truly dead I'm pretty sure that Dan Brown is the better writer.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#394
post #148

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Why is it a big assumption that most people don't need to know "This is by Michelangelo and he is a high status artist" to enjoy the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel (or whatever else)? If you're going to demand copious evidence solely of the hypotheses you don't like, you're going to be locked into confirmation bias. But yes, there are easy tests you could do: get the ratios of "can't identify who made this" to "I like…

I never demanded "copius evidence" I asked a clarifying question. If you are going to make specific claims, people might ask for evidence of those claims. It's not confirmation bias to ask for supporting details, quite the opposite. > Why is it a big assumption that most people don't need to know "This is by Michelangelo and he is a high status artist" to enjoy the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel (or whatever else)? Th…

>I never demanded "copius evidence" I asked a clarifying question. If you are going to make specific claims, people might ask for evidence of those claims. It's not confirmation bias to ask for supporting details, quite the opposite.

It is when you don't ask for the same evidence of the opposite, original assertion, and when the test you demand/clarify-the-existence-of is a strangely narrow test that no one would have reason to do in the first place because the core problem is that no one is subjecting the more modern art to that kind of rigor to begin with! (Which would obviate the whole debate.[1])

So yes, when you come in and single out my response as needing a very specific test before you'll consider it plausible, aren't being epistemically fair.

>Of course, you don't need to know Michelangelo to "enjoy" the Sistine Chapel, nobody argued otherwise.

Are we looking at the same thread? From earlier in this same thread:

>>Anything recognizable as a Michelangelo will automatically win just because he's Michelangelo.

The assertion is that the knowledge of Michelangelo and his association with that work is artificially raising the viewer's appreciation of it. My contrary claim was that it's appreciated as good work, more so than the garbage you see in modern art museums, because it's good, not because the average viewer cares about Michelangelo specifically, which dagw was saying that the later art does (apparently) require (knowledge of the artist and other "context").

>Your claim was that, "A Michelangelo work will win even if the viewer doesn't know it's Michelangelo or even who that is." This implies a measure of comparison to something or someone else, which is far different than enjoying a single piece of art.

It implies exactly what it meant in the original comment and thread:

https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=29227817

That is, a comparison against the later super-edgey modern art.

[1] Except maybe the time that troll passed off a monkey's art as prestigious, which made the duped critics double down and say, "well ... maybe that monkey has artistic talent!"

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#395

Probably a heretical thing to say here but I feel like PG has increasingly fallen into the trap where because he's been smart and insightful in some areas he's gradually convinced himself he's smart and insightful everywhere. IMO the more he veers away from writing on e.g. coding and startups the more he comes across like a very over-confident man who thinks he's figured it all out It's quite noticeable on Twitter to…

What is wrong with expressing one's opinion on things? Intelligent people often have opinions on a lot of things which are outside of their formal area of expertise. Those opinions may sometimes (even often) turn out to be wrong, but can nonetheless make for some interesting conversations. They may sometimes say some things which sound stupid to the real experts in the field, but a genuinely intelligent person is open to taking those expert objections thoughtfully and seriously, as opposed to your garden variety crank or conspiracy theorist who can't even understand those expert objections, but doesn't need to understand them to know that they are wrong.

The other day I was having a discussion about psychiatry with a relative of mine who is an esteemed psychiatry professor. Now, no doubt about it, he knows heaps of things about psychiatry which I, as a non-psychiatrist, don't. But, on the other hand, the conversation made me realise I know some things about his field he doesn't: I read and am interested in psychiatrists who criticise "mainstream" approaches (such as by attacking the DSM, whether in general or with respect to specific diagnoses included in it or both), and so I know a lot about who those people are and what their publications and arguments are, and what the "mainstream" responses are. He is far less interested in that topic, so it appears to me he only knows those criticisms at a relatively high level, and that he isn't across the details of them to the extent that I am. I think he generally trusts that the mainstream approach is right, and focuses (both as a researcher and as a clinician) on working within it rather than questioning or challenging it.

Does the fact that he is an esteemed professor of psychiatry and I have no formal qualifications or professional experience whatsoever in this field or any related field mean that he is (likely to be) right and I am (likely to be) wrong? Well, I think debatable areas of expert opinion, just because you happen to personally know an expert on one side of that debate, doesn't make that side automatically the right side. Even acknowledging that there is a majority and minority side to many of these debates, I think often the minority may be a minority, not because their actual arguments are weaker, but due to social and cultural and historical and political factors. That is especially true in fields such as psychiatry, which still have a rather weak empirical basis. Or, you could say the same about theoretical physics, which starts with a very firm empirical basis (experimental physics is at a far more advanced stage than neurobiology/psychology/etc) but wants to go a long way beyond it – just because string theory is more popular in the contemporary theoretical physics community than loop quantum gravity, is not good evidence that the former is more likely to be true than the later. It is important here to distinguish respectable minority views within academia (even if small minorities) from truly fringe/crank views (which few academics would consider worthy of respect). I also think my esteemed-psychiatry-professor-relative would be more likely to convince me to abandon my view of the topic in favour of his, if this was an area of his field of which he'd developed a detailed knowledge, as opposed to it being an area of which he only appears to know at a high level.

And now when we come to PG expressing views on aesthetics, which is commonly viewed as a branch of philosophy – philosophy is an area which is especially unsettled, and in which the question of where the majority of academic opinion lies is especially distant from the question of what is likely to be true. I suppose the main way I'd fault PG here, is there is a lot of pre-existing academic work on this question, and he doesn't engage with it at all, or display any knowledge of it. On the other hand, maybe given the constraints of the format of the talk he was asked to deliver, the likely interests and abilities of the audience, etc, attempting to engage with that work (to the extent that PG knows it) was not really going to be possible.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#396

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> That's what crassness is, and it comes down to our relative apprehension of the real vs. the represented, where typically, something real is powerful independent of who is observing it, and the representation is not. > That difference between effect and affect is one of the sneakiest bits of the english language and perhaps even the culture's most cunningly set trap. Do not underestimate the value of good taste, it…

This nicely explains overpriced T shirts with the name of some designer on it. It's a T shirt! But it screams 'I could afford to pay too much for this T shirt'.

Upper Middles selling Upper Middles and Middles fake status symbols, but really elevating the esteem of a singular Upper Middle, and making themselves stand out as fake Upper Middle class.

Fascinating meta gameplay here.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#397

As a painter and hacker[1] myself, I understand the message, believe the answer to the headline is "yes, but you can't have it" and I (as surely too would you) understand the vast gulf between my artwork and Rembrandt's, or my code and Norvig's, or my swimming and Phelps', but I've got to say, using "better art" as a test of taste is the irreducible absurdity, and I'd hoped for better after his introduction purported…

I think in choosing rotten meat, you haven't gotten close to the limits - see Surstromming for an example. There are very few universals of taste. Even looking only at food: some people routinely consume, for pleasure, rotten meats, rotten milk (cheese), various bitter poisonous seeds, extremely painful hot peppers, painful acidic or basic substances, and even feces or other bodily fluids. Of course, no one could enj…

You missed the elephant in the room - wine.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#398

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I think this is very wrong, and the foundation of modernism in art and architecture (which is to say, you are wrong in a very unoriginal way!) The Greeks used all sorts of forced perspective tricks in their architecture. Columns aren't equally spaced and lines aren't straight, but when viewed by a human observer at ground level the buildings built to Greek aesthetic rules appear "nicer" than those built to pure geome…

I replied to another comment related, but the anti- version of modernism is of course post-modernism, where nothing is real and everything is mainly its symbolic value. The conceit of that argument is that aesthetics are somehow trivial because anyone can appreciate them but very few can produce them - whereas you take anything post-modern and everyone can produce them but almost nobody can appreciate them sincerely.…

I've long thought that postmodernist critical theory offered an array of very useful tools and positions for epistemic inquiry, but that due to various internal and external conditions of the literature/arts/sociology departments, more widespread and beneficial use of these tools were basically lost (in no small part because of the insecurities, narcissism and nihilism of many of the critical theorists themselves).

For example, two decades ago when I was double majoring in both geology and English, I found the poststructuralist idea that a 'text' exists separately from narratives about its meaning, but the narratives of meaning were inseparable from the broader social constructs use to build the narratives, both clearly correct and very useful in understanding the process of scientific inquiry. The Earth exists, you know, somewhat independently of us; however geological theory is a human construct and every part of the process from measurement to analysis to interpretation to presentation is a human act that carries with it the stamp of human ingenuity and human flaws: The sample sites selected for measurement, and the measurements themselves, contain biases and other uncertainties related to the selection process (mostly based on theoretical considerations), the engineering of the measurement tools, and other constraints (e.g. physical and budgetary limits). Obviously, scientific methodologies are centered around scientific theories, one or two of which is tested and refined in the process, but a thousand others are invoked as assumption and context, i.e. a larger theoretical structure. And presentation is communication, and additional choices are made as to what to highlight and what to gloss over.

Similarly, postmodernism's stance that there is no objective and unbiased observation and interpretation, and therefore all perspectives use one or more lenses that basically basically bias or filter the results, is clearly and often quite literally applicable to the sciences (think microscopy or remote sensing). Beyond those trivial cases, I think postmodernist theory helped me be able to disentangle the literature a bit and think, "OK, when someone interested in river erosion and landscape evolution looks at this dataset, they see X but I am interested in tectonics and Y stands out", or (in a wider theoretical context) "the geophysicists who come into the geosciences from physics use mathematical tools and make assumptions that assume the processes and configurations are time-invariant; on the other hand, the geologists know this area has evolved over the past 2 million years but their data analysis is trash--and that's why the groups can't talk to each other".

The major difference here I think is intentionality. The STEM communities do generally operate on good faith and have some sense of shared purpose, and scientific advancements are real, positive sum phenomena. So it's possible to apply these tools to the literature and to one's colleagues in a way that doesn't really involve value/moral judgements or seek to diminish or purposefully misinterpret the work of others. However this is missing in much of the liberal arts world where there is no clear definition of progress, and as a result much can be reduced to controlling unfalsifiable narratives and battles for influence.

That said, for all of its possible utility, critical theory's current escape from academia into the wider world doesn't seem to be going well. (For what it's worth, I also see modern Identitarianism as a full-throated but unwitting rejection of postmodernism, by holding that meaning is really implicit in texts, and that only some identity groups can legitimately produce and/or interpret texts. So they have moved on from Derrida's nihilism and are establishing a new priesthood even while canonizing him.)

Edit: I'd also like to emphasize that the ability to make somewhat accurate measurements, quantify misfits between modeled (i.e. theoretical) and observational data, and the ability to downweight, modify and/or reject hypotheses is also a major factor that allows for progress in STEM fields vs. the liberal arts, which limits the proliferation of bad-faith narratives that can use the offenses and defenses of post-(and post-post-)modernist theory.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#399
I don't think that Graham hit the mark here. Taste is not the name of the continuum along the bad-to-good axis. Taste is the undefinable nuance that plays out in the good end of that axis.

When some artwork is good, I know that and will defend its value, even if it is not to my taste.

Re: Is there such a thing as good taste?

#400

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> That's what crassness is, and it comes down to our relative apprehension of the real vs. the represented, where typically, something real is powerful independent of who is observing it, and the representation is not. > That difference between effect and affect is one of the sneakiest bits of the english language and perhaps even the culture's most cunningly set trap. Do not underestimate the value of good taste, it…

This nicely explains overpriced T shirts with the name of some designer on it. It's a T shirt! But it screams 'I could afford to pay too much for this T shirt'.

Or, "the overseas factory shipped this to me for 3 dollars and the designer couldn't do anything about it".
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