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Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

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291–300 of 408 posts

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#291
post #39

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> I can imagine an indigenous woman having a fling with a viking and just rasing the kid in her village. No one the wiser. Except everyone who saw the kid?

Many mixed raced people can pass as being completely apart of one race. I imagine a Norwegian/Indigenous American kid could just look Indigenous American.

[deleted]

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#292
post #279
post #187

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I think by "around the same time" he probably just means "plus or minus a few hundred years, before the Europeans". Point being that native collapse happened at large scale in multiple areas prior to European settling.

That's like saying the Roman and Carthaginian empires both fell around the same time, and thus were part of the same event. Pre-industrial populations naturally fluctuate over time, and some regions may have been in a slight decline prior to European contact, but nothing at all comparable to after contact, when population decreased by about 90% in 50 years.

Maya is notable because a region that once supported a large population quickly underwent large scale depopulation for reasons that are not clear to us today. This wasn't a matter of one nation collapsing only to absorbed by another. We're talking about a population in the millions to 10s of millions that just faded away. All of this occurred pre-Columbian.

>That's like saying the Roman and Carthaginian empires both fell around the same time, and thus were part of the same event.

Not trying to say they were caused by the same event but it does seem to be a trend that Native America had issues sustaining permanent population centers like you saw in other parts of the world.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#293
post #4

The Icelandic sagas suggest that the Norse engaged in cultural exchanges with the Indigenous groups of North America34. If these encounters indeed occurred, they may have had inadvertent outcomes, such as pathogen transmission7, the introduction of foreign flora and fauna species, or even the exchange of human genetic information. Recent data from the Norse Greenlandic population, however, show no evidence of the las…

“Inadvertent exchange of human genetic information”… :)

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#294

Earlier quoted context omitted.

There are some who think that if the First Nations weren’t “the first”, that diminishes modern day claims and grievances, making it easier for modern day Canada and the USA to ignore legitimate claims, and treat us as they’ve always wanted to treat us. So, this sort of research is important for many.

Weird take. I have never read any claims that Europeans were in N America before the indigenous. Even with visiting in 1000 AD, the "indians" have 10-20,000 year lead.

There's all the nonsense that happened around Kennewick man and all the controversies around it. Various bits of bad physical anthropology that tried to identify the skull as "Caucasoid", some dispute over the control over the remains, and in the end DNA testing showed continuity with today's indigenous populations; but white nationalists tried to seize on its initial description as "Caucasoid" as some evidence of "Caucasian" presence in the new world long ago.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kennewick_Man#Race_factor

'The New York Times reported "White supremacist groups are among those who used Kennewick Man to claim that Caucasians came to America well before Native Americans." Additionally, Asatru Folk Assembly, a racialist neopagan organization, sued to have the bones genetically tested before it was adjudicated that Kennewick Man was an ancestor of present-day Native Americans.'

Also the whole "Solutrean hypothesis", also disproven/discredited, but living on among the conspirational and often racist.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#295

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> And the diseases were only a small factor in the outcome of the colonization. Guns being a much larger factor, for example. I'm not so sure about that. Writing gave a huge advantage to the Western forces. By that I mean military men had access to a couple thousand years of military tactics books. Having advanced weapons is one thing, knowing strategy and tactics is quite another. For example, there are battles wher…

> Writing gave a huge advantage to the Western forces. By that I mean military men had access to a couple thousand years of military tactics books. Having advanced weapons is one thing, knowing strategy and tactics is quite another. If memory serves me correctly, military tactics didn't really become a genre until the late 16th century, after the Spanish conquest of the Aztec and Inca empires. And during the early 16…

Since the Conquistador commanders sent back written reports, I doubt they were illiterate. And even if they were illiterate, they were trained by military people who were. And even if those were also illiterate, they were steeped in military traditions of discipline, organization, tactics, etc., that went back to the greeks.

The way they operated was clear evidence of military sophistication.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#296

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Well, there were around 3000 Spanish conquistadors. Could they really conquer the whole Aztec empire (5 mln people) without alliances with local tribes?

That was my point above that everyone seems to have missed. Even if diseases wiped out 90+% of the local population, they would still greatly outnumber the conquistadors. So it wasn't purely a balance of manpower. Sure, the diseases weakened the resistance, but it wasn't the deciding factor. Diamond says as much in his book.

Disease was still very much the deciding factor. The europeans had an advantage in technology, but not a staggering one. Cortez's forces were successfully defeated by the Aztecs on more than one occasion, and it was only after disease wiped out a large portion of Tenochtitlan's population and a protracted siege that Cortez and his allies could wear down their defenses enough to seize the city. When Pizarro entered Peru, the area had already been severely depopulated by disease and civil war, the civil war itself being kicked off by the death of both the Emperor and his heir dying of small pox. He convinced the winner of that civil war to visit him unarmed and then captured him and masscred his retinue, and used his hostage to get the Inca generals to stand down. When the Incas eventually rebelled, they too were successful in the field against the spanish - Manco Inca managed to wipe out 4 relief columns sent to break his Siege of Cuzco. Guerilla tactics were common but Manco also defeated the Spanish in open battles, such as the Battle of Ollantaytambo. While Manco was ultimately unsuccessful in seizing control of Cuzco, the Spanish likewise were unable to defeat him, and his Neo-Inca state survived for decades.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#297
post #279

Earlier quoted context omitted.

That's like saying the Roman and Carthaginian empires both fell around the same time, and thus were part of the same event. Pre-industrial populations naturally fluctuate over time, and some regions may have been in a slight decline prior to European contact, but nothing at all comparable to after contact, when population decreased by about 90% in 50 years.

Maya is notable because a region that once supported a large population quickly underwent large scale depopulation for reasons that are not clear to us today. This wasn't a matter of one nation collapsing only to absorbed by another. We're talking about a population in the millions to 10s of millions that just faded away. All of this occurred pre-Columbian. >That's like saying the Roman and Carthaginian empires both…

> We're talking about a population in the millions to 10s of millions that just faded away.

Okay, this is just plain false. The Classical Maya collapse could be compared to the Fall of Rome or the end of the Han dynasty (although perhaps I should use Tang instead for historical proximity). That is to say, the Maya didn't disappear. Completely the opposite--the Classical Maya collapse is actually reflected in the rise of the Yucatec and other lowland Mayan city centers, notably Chichen Itza, which would itself decline a few hundred years later, before the city of Mayapan rose to prominence, again declining again a hundred-ish years later. Mayan city states remained independent and following Mayan cultural and religious practices even after the Spanish conquest of the Aztecs, with the last Mayan kingdom falling only in 1697. Even then, while no longer independent, Mayan culture still persists to this day.

There are civilizations that are hard to trace. What happened to the people of, say, Cahokia or Teotihuacan are still a mystery to this day. But the Maya are absolutely not one of those.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#298

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Weird take. I have never read any claims that Europeans were in N America before the indigenous. Even with visiting in 1000 AD, the "indians" have 10-20,000 year lead.

There's all the nonsense that happened around Kennewick man and all the controversies around it. Various bits of bad physical anthropology that tried to identify the skull as "Caucasoid", some dispute over the control over the remains, and in the end DNA testing showed continuity with today's indigenous populations; but white nationalists tried to seize on its initial description as "Caucasoid" as some evidence of "C…

Thanks for sharing the examples, certainly an interesting read.

However, I don't think interest in the Viking archeology from the last 2,000 years can be written off in the same vein.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#299
post #269
post #218

Earlier quoted context omitted.

According to NASA archaeologist Tom Sever, the Mayan civilization in Mesoamerica was one of the densest populations in human history. Around 800 A.D., after two millennia of steady growth, the Mayan population reached an all-time high. Population density ranged from 500 to 700 people per square mile in the rural areas, and from 1,800 to 2,600 people per square mile near the center of the Mayan Empire (in what is now…

Right, agreed entirely, this is higher than the numbers I recall from reading, but same order of magnitude. It was the flippant reference to Spain regarding chronology that I took umbrage with. Thats ~700 years after the area of Spain was named Spain (Latin Hispaniola in the Roman empire, iirc). I always find the slightly emotional charge discussions (and subsequent downvotes) odd. There seems to be a very strong int…

> It was the flippant reference to Spain regarding chronology that I took umbrage with. Thats ~700 years after the area of Spain was named Spain (Latin Hispaniola in the Roman empire, iirc).

Obviously the land area of Spain has "always" existed. I think referring to "Spain's existence" as the socio-political entity established during the Reconquista is a reasonable position for a throw-away line during a HN discussion.

Re: Evidence for European presence in the Americas in AD 1021

#300

There are plenty of valid claims that many other civilizations contacted America: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pre-Columbian_trans-oceanic_co... But it is meaningless since they did not write about it nor they stablished commerce. The fact is that before 1492, most civilizations in Africa/Asia/Europe did not know that America existed and that other humans lived there. After 1492, that changed forever.

This brings up a good point about what does discover mean. People lived in north America but they did not write about it to Europeans so they had to be discovered. Why does my understanding of history seem to revolve around what Europeans did and did not do/know?

For better or for worse, different civilizations took different approaches to keeping written records. The Chinese, many European people, the Arabs, the Persians, the Indians, the Mayans, the Aztecs, many African people all had detailed written records. So we tend to tell history from their point of view, since this is the info we have.

Do we have written info from the Native Americans who met the Vikings or from the Caribbean peoples about Columbus? Not that I know of. We have the Vikings view of things and Columbus' view, so we tend to rely on them.

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