Earlier quoted context omitted.
Good question. There's a few reasons I use that phrase and I agree with you that, from a statistical perspective, it isn't the correct usage of the term: - There was a lot of misinformation spread (on both sides of the debate). So people were voting for issues that didn't apply. - There were a lot of protest votes from people who assumed "Remain" would win and who also did want to remain but wanted to voice disagreem…
I can accept that there were confounding factors which may have affected the result and how enduring a picture of UK attitudes it might be. I wonder if any referendum could be 100% free of those factors? I just object to the use of the phrase - there is no margin for error here, it forms the full picture of how the population voted, not an estimate. People use this phraseology, and I've even seen the term "not statis…
"This result is reflective of what the majority _want_"
or "This result is reflective of what the majority _voted for_"
The latter isn't always the same as the former in cases where information isn't clear or where the poll options are too vague. Both of which plagued the EU referendum.I do get your point that "margin for error" is a statistical term and it is not technically being applied correctly here. But the crux of what that term refers to does still apply to the former context above.
As for why the context matters: because every conversion that happened since focused on the former point with MPs even coining the phrase "the will of the people" yet the people's "will" was still unclear.
That all said, I don't think there is any way such a referendum would have worked on a topic as diverse and complex as our relations with the EU.