Earlier quoted context omitted.
Could someone please explain how this can be the case? I understand the vaccine works by stimulating antibody production, which prevent you from becoming ill by binding to the virus and disabling it should it enter your system. How then could the virus be spread further if it's already been disabled?
There is the virus replicating itself in a body, which leads to the body being able to spread the virus to others. And there is the body getting sick. The second often follows the first, but the two are not necessarily connected, which is proven by asymptomatic spreaders. In the vaccine phase 3 tests, it was only determined whether people get sick, and the vaccine was found to prevent 95% of people from getting sick.…
Additionally, for the immune system to respond, the infection has to happen first -- the virus has to spread through the cells of your body. We already know that the people are indeed infectious before their immune system response makes the symptoms. The delay in response has to exist even among the vaccinated people.
So what is sought after is a proof of sterilizing immunity, and there's no such still. I've read that the UK plans to evaluate the evidence for that in the following months by tracking the people who get the vaccine, which sounds good.