Earlier quoted context omitted.
Arguably American firms have been incredibly competitive since the 1970s; its American labor that hasn’t been. And/or the fruits of globalism have not been fairly shared. Depending on whom you ask.
The fruits of globalism aren't shared equitably amongst labor, post-1970's labor earnings have done exceptionally well for the upper tranches of the labor pyramid. Why are those more competitive than the rest? There are factors like differential productivity gains due to globalization, technology, etc but I'm not convinced. Especially when one takes Baumol's cost disease into account. There was a change in during the…
What do you think about that? Did they make any errors?