Earlier quoted context omitted.
This stat is clear evidence that there is not equality of opportunity.
Disparity of outcome does not prove disparity of opportunity.
Everytime somebody has tried to argue that to me, it turns out that they believe that there are racial differences that are not based on evidence.
For example, I once had somebody say that the racial outcome differences were not like socioeconomic upbringing differences in outcome, and that though socioeconomic outcome differences were evidence of difference in opportunity, that racial differences were genetic, which is clearly abiological.
So if you are not positing racial differences in opportunity, what are you positing as the explanatory variable?