Earlier quoted context omitted.
I think you are misrepresting my argument and attempt to dismiss it in an odd way. I am arguing that rules set up by the market do not automagically enforce free market. I am arguing that rules explicitly do the opposite by introducing guard rails, which DO restrict movement in that free market. Do you honestly believe that rules derive its effects from who sets them up?
To be perfectly honest I’m not sure I find your argument coherent at all. Can you define what you mean by free market? Is two parties freely coming to a mutually beneficial agreement that they are then constrained by (i.e. a contract) consistent with that definition?
That said, I am not sure what you disagree with. Please elaborate.