> The article is misleading in an important respect. While real wages haven't budged much (they certainly haven't declined), benefits, which are tax-advantaged relative to wages, have increased quite a bit. For example, while wages rose 3% since 2000, benefits rose 22%:
https://www.pewresearch.org/fact-tank/2018/08/07/for-most-us....
Despite the article not mentioning benefits, the primary reason for the increase in benefit costs is the skyrocketing increase in cost of healthcare (which is mentioned in the article you provided), which we know has inflated faster than the CPI for decades:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Health_care_prices_in_the_Unit...
The only other significant component of employer-provided benefits, retirement contributions, has if anything been cut back via defined contribution plans of today (i.e. 401ks), rather the generous defined-benefit (AKA pension) plans of the past.
And things like transportation subsidies, etc are marginal compared to healthcare expenditures.
So it's not as if the increase in employers' benefit spending is being experienced by most workers as in increase in utility. Therefore, the spirit of the article, which is that workers have received little real[1] value from the GDP increases of the last 40 years, is still correct.
What the article doesn't address, but your article does, is the fact that wages are recovering unequally, with most of the gains going to the highest earners.
1. I'm not counting ever cheaper electronics and entertainment in my definition of "real".