Earlier quoted context omitted.
And white people in the U.S. are also not homogeneous. So what? The U.S. has multiple metropolitan areas that each has a larger population and more ethnic diversity than the smaller European countries. And that's before you even consider the country as a whole.
==The U.S. has multiple metropolitan areas that each has a larger population and more ethnic diversity than the smaller European countries.== Yes, but that was true when the US had a robust middle class (roughly 1940-2000). I haven't seen any evidence presented that proves demographic diversity is the reason for increased inequality. Meanwhile, we can observe political decisions over the past 40 years which have had…
Not really. Non-hispanic whites + blacks made up 95% of the population as recently as 1970. As of 2010, those two groups combined make up only 75% of the population. There have been radical changes in the demography of the U.S. in the last 50-80 years.
I actually agree with you that changing demographics are not the whole story, but the fact that the U.S. has gone from one (black Americans) to two (added Latin American immigrants — now 16% of the population) racially delineated underclasses does a lot to undermine social cohesion.
Source for U.S. demographics: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_racial_and_ethnic_d...