Earlier quoted context omitted.
That's incorrect IMHO. The Mughals had ruled over an area greater than India's current area. The Marathas too had almost replaced Mughals after their downfall, and the British replaced Marathas. There was infighting in a few kingdoms towards the south and the east, and that's where the British gained their initial territory. There was a concept of a united India/Hindustan/Bharat/Aryavart in Ancient times.
You can read about the disintegration of the Mughal empire after Aurangzeb here: http://www.historydiscussion.net/empires/later-mughals-and-d... The Marathas never controlled an "undivided India" given the extent of their empire at it's peak: https://www.mapsofindia.com/history/maratha-empire.html Not to mention, even Akbar did not have the North east and the southernmost parts of India. The rise of the Sikh empire,…
Video: https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=628 (at 10:28).
Some other interesting time lines from a union of India perspective from this video:
Maurya Empire: 270 BCE (at 2:01, https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=122)
Delhi Sultanate: 1344 (at 8:44 https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=524)
Edit: Found another video that matches with the above video regarding Mughal Empire: https://youtu.be/wYu2jyVTSc8?t=76 (at 1:16).