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Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

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Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#41

Post by zimzim »

Melchizedek wrote: post #22

One important factor could be differences in intelligence. https://infogalactic.com/info/IQ_and_Global_Inequality

For the past century raw scores on IQ tests have been rising; this score increase is known as the "Flynn effect," named after Jim Flynn. In the United States, the increase was continuous and approximately linear from the earliest years of testing to about 1998 when the gains stopped and some tests even showed decreasing test scores. For example, in the United States the average scores of blacks on some IQ tests in 1995 were the same as the scores of whites in 1945.[61] As one pair of academics phrased it, "the typical African American today probably has a slightly higher IQ than the grandparents of today's average white American."[62]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_and_intelligence

IQ is a culture thing not a brain thing

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#42

Post by egeozcan »

donquichotte wrote: post #20
emrahayanoglu wrote: post #10

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Because controlling people, who are struggling in their life, are much easier by dictators. Even with religious activities, dictators can make citizens pray for him. if politicians allow you to have lots of chances, then you'll start criticizing and want more. More improvement on life conditions gives you less control on citizens. I'm Turkish living in Switzerland, I can say that it is the same shit in every developi…

Also, corruption. This is anectotal, but in the countries I've visisted, which include a hand full of ex Soviet republics, the median quality of life seemed to be negatively correlated with the amount of corruption.

I'm also Turkish, and believe me, when you have a dictator with his troll army, sucking the life out of the whole country, you'll wish you had the typical corrupt but manageable government from the 90s. The types we have these times would stand next to a kilometer-long list documenting their illegal business and say "we did what needs to be done for our great country" and everyone would cheer while you make escape plans. Hi from Germany(the risk of being falsely labeled as a teenager won't stop me: I<3🇩🇪).

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#43

Post by sus_007 »

As a citizen of a developing country (Nepal) which has been haunted by its unstable politics, I'd still like to (partially)advocate that even less-developed nations(at least some) have invaluable resources (mostly natural) that the urbane nations can't renew for themselves. For instance, here in Nepal, there's a massive open market for tourism due to the remarkable landscapes(mountain ranges, "Everest", geographically blessed I'd say) & ancient cultural heritages(sacred Hinduism & Origin of Buddhism). Had there been a proper salutation of foreign indulgence in exploiting the resources over here, Nepal would have done much better. Hence, the political mayhem has led our country nowhere productive. :(

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#44

Post by ianai »

arkh wrote: post #30
sumedh wrote: post #7

As someone who migrated from a developing country(India) to a developed country(Australia) and observing the difference in quality of life of average citizens among the two countries, I always wonder why politicians/dictators from developing countries who can also observe these differences ever wonder that the average people in a developed country are living a good life so why not just copy what the developed country…

Because usually what makes a society work is not really seen. I hate bureaucracy but an iron-clad property system and a lot of check and balance to reduce corruption are needed. And this can take decades to put in place as it requires a change in people's mentality.

What makes society work is very visible - society. The individuals that comprise the society. When they have resources (money, freedom, property ownership, etc) the society will grow. Also, population growth. If there are more people around then there will be more sold and thus produced.

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#45

Post by cinquemb »

F_r_k wrote: post #8

I recommend everyone interested in this subject to read "Why Nations Fail: The Origins of Power, Prosperity, and Poverty" by Daron Acemoglu It's a great book that tries to explain why.

I came across this 36 page lecture[0] with the same title in by another person with the author, for those who want some insight without buying the book.

Interesting to read, and it seems like it comes down to:

  - Because they have extractive political and economic institutions.

  - These are difficult to change though they can be successfully challenged and altered during critical junctures.

  - The roots of modern world inequality lie in the emergence of inclusive institutions in Britain and the fruits of this - the industrial revolution - spread to those parts of the world that had similar institutions (settler colonies) or quickly developed them (Western Europe).

  - Other parts of the world languished with extractive institutions which have persisted over time and thus remain poor today.
With caveats of:

  - History is not destiny.

  - Effective reforms towards inclusive institutions possible.

  - But it often necessitates a minor or major political revolution.

    Two examples:

      1 End of Southern equilibrium in the United States

      2 Botswana
I think I was drawn to this part in the lecture and started thinking about what modern day analogous of this could look like (Jamie Dimon's position on crypto-currencies as of late [specifically bitcoin] as modern day Sultan wrt firing employees trading such [and other well politically entrenched financial institutions around the world], DPI on internet networks by various nation states from blocking easy access to information, etc) :

  - In 1445 in the German city of Mainz, Johannes Gutenberg invented the printing press based on movable type. Spread rapidly throughout Western Europe.

  - In 1485, the Ottoman Sultan Bayezid II issued an edict to the effect that Muslims were expressly forbidden from printing in Arabic.
[0] http://www.lse.ac.uk/assets/richmedia/channels/publicLecture...

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#46

Post by justboxing »

wallace_f wrote: post #35

Economists can sometimes be the equivalent to the priests of the past--basically making justifications for the ruling class. I was once passionate about economics and public policy... If we are to be honest about it, at some point you just realize that the world is much less nice than I imagined, and it's that way because of people's greed. That's not to say there aren't a fair good number of decent people out there,…

> it's that way because of people's greed.

Came here to say this. The poverty and richness (this word doesn't sound right) of every country can be directly tied to the greed (or lack thereof) of 1 or more rulers, aristocrats, businessmen, dicatators, prime ministers, presidents = "ruling class".

That's all there is to it. No amount of analysis or economic theories, justifications or "studies" can hide that.

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#47

Post by bolololo1 »

Most rich countries are rich because they build their wealth on free labor (slavery), and this countries include USA, UK, France, Germany, Belgium, etc. Some are really poor because they've been exploited by the countries mentioned above (Africa and former German, British, Belgian, French colonies). Some are poorer because they've been destroyed by war multiple times (Poland).

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#48

Post by stun »

jamesmattis wrote: post #23

There must be a definition of rich and poor. It should not be devised by looking at the wealth. It should be devised by looking at the living standards, education system, environment, law and order, equality, zero racism. And where people can live an anxiety/depression free life. Where there is welfare, care, love grows everyday for each other.

The zero racism part is not gonna slide with the so-called developed countries

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#49

Post by dba7dba »

khuey wrote: post #14
dba7dba wrote: post #12

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Likewise South Korea definitely did not receive (and properly used) foreign aid. South Korea did receive quite a lot of foreign aid from US, UN. South Korea is the only nation to transition from receiver to giver in international aid. https://poldev.revues.org/1535

The '/s' at the end of that line denotes sarcasm.

Learning something new lol. No seriously. I missed it.

South Korea really did have the Greatest Generation. Those who were were adults during the war and those born around that time. Really.

Re: Why Are Some Countries Rich and Others Poor?

#50

Post by throwaway8591 »

LeonigMig wrote: post #2

No mention of colonialism or imperialism here. Not the whole answer, but part.

Indeed. How rich would Finland, Sweden, Austria, and Poland really be today had they never colonized Africa or subjugated and enslaved its industrious inhabitants, and how rich would Ethiopia be if it had been spared from the ravages of European rapacity?
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