Earlier quoted context omitted.
You have this a bit wrong. If ability is normally distributed for a given sex (and the mean of the ability of the same), then it is true that there would be more above-average male programmers than female programmers - just as there are more male programmers than female programmers at any skill level. If you are provided a skilled programmer, they are most likely male. And if you are provided any programmer, they are…
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That might have been what you meant, but it isn't what you said. You said:
> Then we can conclude that there are more male programmers that are above this mean.
Not as a percentage of their cohort, which is the only rational way of expressing this idea.