Earlier quoted context omitted.
It's hard for me to see why this dynamic would happen. What specific federal funds rate would make stock prices "supported by fundamentals" rather than "inflated", and why in your view can't the Fed just set that rate to avoid these problems?
Because a mix of globalization, technological financialization, and perverse incentives. The markets have become increasingly global to the point that there is never a shortage of investors or investment capital. However, profitable, low or no risk investment opportunities do not grow on trees nearly as plentifully. Due to an overabundant supply of investors with a high demand to seek profitable low or no risk invest…
Or, lowering interest rates creates overabundant demand for low/no risk investment opportunities...
while I agree with your analysis, it's only valid for 1 side of the coin -
similarly, this all also 'nicely corresponds' with the rise of supply-side / trickle-down economics as well..
as for inflation: is not a growth in wage disparity just as good of a measure of relative inflation over time as some small and continually modified basket of consumer goods?