What laypeople need to realize is the following relation: Low federal funds rates allow companies to acquire huge amounts of debt very cheaply. Huge amounts of cheap debt allow companies to buy lots of stock, driving up prices. Stock prices inflated in such a way are not supported by fundamentals and so the downside risk greatly increases. Once the downside eventually materializes, markets drop violently. At first, t…
> Huge amounts of cheap debt allow companies to buy lots of stock, driving up prices.
> Stock prices inflated in such a way are not supported by fundamentals and so the downside risk greatly increases.
The price is driven up by "demand" but the demand is not "real" because it wasn't due to the business actually _innovating_ but actually just "stock changing hands"?
> Once the downside eventually materializes, markets drop violently. At first, the FED ignores this, but eventually it bails. The funds rate is once again lowered, so the game can continue.
When/how does that happen?
> All of this causes massive asset price inflation.
There is no way for it to "not" right? It's sort of like measuring volume of action, but the action didn't actually produce any real "value"?
> The CPI doesn't immediately reflect this kind of inflation, so the FED gets to claim "there is no inflation" and everything is "just fine". Well, it's not fine and they know it, they just can't really do anything about it.
Is there a better measure that _does_ reflect it? It sounds like it can be modeled with corporate debt / buyback on a graph?
Again, layperson here, hoping to learn stuff.