Earlier quoted context omitted.
Why would it cast any doubt? If you can use o1 output to build a better R1. Then use R1 output to build a better X1... then a better X2.. XN, that just shows a method to create better systems for a fraction of the cost from where we stand. If it was that obvious OpenAI should have themselves done. But the disruptors did it. It hindsight it might sound obvious, but that is true for all innovations. It is all good stuf…
I think it would cast doubt on the narrative "you could have trained o1 with much less compute, and r1 is proof of that", if it turned out that in order to train r1 in the first place, you had to have access to bunch of outputs from o1. In other words, you had to do the really expensive o1 training in the first place. (with the caveat that all we have right now are accusations that DeepSeek made use of OpenAI data -…
In this study, we demonstrate that reasoning capabilities can be significantly improved through large-scale reinforcement learning (RL), even without using supervised fine-tuning (SFT) as a cold start. Furthermore, performance can be further enhanced with the inclusion of a small amount of cold-start data
Is this cold start data what OpenAI is claiming their output ? If so what's the big deal ?