Earlier quoted context omitted.
>that’s it’s not elderly people who are dying, but “primarily working-age people 18 to 64” He's literally claiming that elderly are not dying at the same rates, based on his internal customer data
Are we reading the same sentence?
My interpretation is that this guy runs an insurance company who insures working age people through their employers. That is the source of the data, so he is missing data on elderly people
Yet he makes a claim that the people he does not have data on are dying at a lower rate than the people he does have data on. This makes no sense, as you can't make a comparison when you simply don't have data on the group you're comparing against