Earlier quoted context omitted.
> does it imply any arbitrarily boundary of commerce is invalid? Yes. It says exactly that. Now, there are details that can change things either way. But the one thing about economics, that is known for about 3 centuries, is that usually arbitrary boundaries to commerce make people poorer. Usually, both on average and on the poor extreme. There is more variability of impact for rich people.
I’m not doubting that claim but do you have any further reading to back it up?
Just avoid anything advanced enough to have a small focus.