Earlier quoted context omitted.
That is an interesting perspective. But my understanding that that human society were mostly hunter gatherers, with little resources to speak of and there is no concept of capital ownership and accumulation since there is nothing material to accumulate, it is only after the agricultural revolution (ownership of land and slaves) and industrial revolution (ownership of machines and oil) and information revolution (owne…
Kings and pharaohs accumulated capital even if they didn't use the word. We're something like 10,000 years into amassing resources at scale in the hands of the few. This growth coincides with states, incidentally, and is the subject of the very cool book https://www.amazon.com/Against-Grain-History-Earliest-States... . That book combined with https://www.amazon.com/gp/aw/d/022647822X (as a state, like a dog, must com…
I think I get your point now, you're saying that the current inequality existed since humans started accumulating resources (age of kings and pharaohs) and the strive for more economically equal societies is a very recent goal.
Where I think we differ though, and correct me if I'm wrong, that you seem to implicitly imply that the current inequality is the natural order of things, given it's prevalence in modern human history. However I think it is the opposite, in that it is a recent trend, yes, 10k years is recent relative to 300K+ years of humanity, and there is nothing really natural about it, it is a byproduct of an aging human created socioeconomic systems, and not some physical law of nature, and it could and should be improved, that I think is the critical task of modern economists (and I'd love to read some books on that topic if any).
I'll start reading the suggested books, I enjoyed the argument you presented because it puts the current inequality in the larger historical context.