Earlier quoted context omitted.
Why would growth be bounded depending on the cause of that growth? Genuine question, not trying to be snarky. 50 years might be an unrealistic timeframe for China, but then again who knows? Putting aside my personal view that they're going to either stagnate or go backwards within the next decade, it doesn't seem impossible. Although they're obviously much much smaller, Singapore is an example of a country that went…
> Why would growth be bounded depending on the cause of that growth? Totally fair question. I didn't mean specific causes are bounded (it doesn't matter if your conductors are yttrium or graphene), but I wasn't terribly clear. What I mean is that relative-growth gains are bounded in a way that absolute-growth gains aren't. Relative growth (i.e. cutting better trade deals, capturing more share and profit on what exist…
It's a good point about Yew having the advantage of a near-autocracy. Although it might sometimes appear that way to us westerners, this is not entirely the case in China. I have noticed though that there is a (not entirely unjustified) stain of thought that authoritarian government is better able to implement unpopular, but growth positive, government economic policy. It's just my vague concern with nothing to really back it up, but I can't help but feel were slowly sliding towards illiberal 'democracy' in much of the first-world anglosphere. Hopefully I'm mistaken, as I quite like genuine liberal democracy.
The computerisation point is a very interesting one. Putting aside the possibility it's a measurement issue, one other theory I've seen posits that computerisation more often leads to cannibalisation of industries, rather than creation. Albeit these argument generally acknowledge that minor (but still positive) gain are made from higher industrial efficiency. My own pet theory is that computerisation has turned many markets into 'winner-takes-all' markets, meaning gains from efficiency have been translated into (highly concentrated) private wealth much more than they have led to broader increases in economic growth. I think there are two factors at play here: (1) the positive network externalities often associated with computerised markets and (2) the 'always increasing' economies of scale that purely (or mostly) computerised services enjoy, due to the non-rivalrous nature of their consumption.
I'd be very interested to hear your theories if you're willing to share :)