Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Almost all of Europe uses civil law, where there is no distinction between civil and criminal courts. Obviously not true. In fact, this is so obviously wrong I don't know where to start. Differences between civil and criminal courts: * different hierarchy * different powers (criminal court can, say, order imprisonment) * different judges * different parties (defendant vs prosecution for criminal, defendant vs compl…
> Differences between civil and criminal courts: I spoke too broadly - apparently, some countries (including France, Spain, Poland and Italy) do have different courts for civil and criminal matters. Other countries do not (including Germany, Sweden, Hungary and Slovakia) [0]. > https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partie_civile_en_France > Google suggests this as an English alternative: > https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi…
Not "some countries" ... All countries have different criminal and civil codes, and therefore courts, and judges, and lawyers, and ... all different. I'm pretty interested which country, exactly, only has a single system across criminal and civil law. Common law has the separation, Napoleonic code has the separation, see next paragraph for explanation why that's pretty much enough to declare it true for the entire world.
> I have only read briefly, but noted two things to start with: the document in English clearly states that it only describes the French system (even though other countries are mentioned at times), and it is also 60 years old. But even so:
I feel like, again, I need to quote a bit, not even of "law 101", but the basic explanation they give when they have someone tour the law faculty. There are 2 modern law "systems" that pretty much all other law is based upon. One is Common law, the other is the law introduced by Napoleon, in 1804, referred to in English as the Napoleonic code, and adopted in all countries he conquered. To a rough approximation you could say that any country that was not a colony of Britain has the Napoleonic code as a legal basis (including countries that claim different for one reason or another, like Saudi Arabia that claims to have Sharia, but upon even cursory examination that will strike you as a very hollow claim)
The "partie civil" process is a part of Napoleonic code (references for this, obviously, are in French legalese).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Napoleonic_Code (note the separation between civil and criminal courts in a very old document, which is why it's so widely used) and ... given the mistakes you make ... perhaps you might consider speaking with a bit less authority ?
> If this is as common as you claim, it should not be difficult to find recent sources which support it.
And the resources I pointed out do describe this, and yes, I get it. It's law ... the sources where law is condensed are not free, and cannot be linked to, ancient books that do describe it are more-or-less in Google books, but they're still pretty technical and long-winded.
Also, for obvious reasons, most "intro to law" for any particular Napoleonic code is not in English. The good ones are in French.