Earlier quoted context omitted.
> but as the act happened as part of a strategic decision it is acceptable police behavior. No, they made no comment on whether that is acceptable. The court case was about "alleging violations of the Takings Clause". The court said that this clause does not apply in this case: - (1) when a state acts pursuant to its police power, rather than the power of eminent domain, its actions do not constitute a taking. - (3)…
> when a state acts pursuant to its police power, rather than the power of eminent domain, its actions do not constitute a taking Isn't that moving the goalposts, though? What this ruling effectively says is that as long as the state doesn't invoke eminent domain to take a citizen's property, then it's not eminent domain, even if the end result is that a citizen's property is taken? I would much prefer a reading of e…
If "a government invokes its authority to seize or destroys a citizen's property" what does it derive this authority from?
If it is from eminent domain it is allowed to do A but must follow rules B.
If it is not from eminent domain, such as in this case, the first question is not whether it has to follow rules B, but whether it is allowed to do A at all.