Earlier quoted context omitted.
I've long wondered about something, but I haven't been able to figure it out. This may be my best chance. What is the difference between the following two compensation strategies: (1) You get 100 options, that vest at 1/4 after one year and 1/4 after every following year. (2) You don't get any options now. You will get 25 options, which can be exercised immediately (or whatever the equivalent status is of vested opti…
The main difference would be the strike price of the options, which can make a huge difference in both taxes and income at a liquidity event. Assuming the company is growing over time, you absolutely want option 1. The strike price is determined by a 409a evaluations. Example: assume the valuations each year are 0.10, 0.20, 0.30, 0.40, 0.50 and the sale price is $1 at year 5. In option 1 your strike price will be $0.…
(I assume I should look up "409a", the magic keyword to answer my questions?)