Earlier quoted context omitted.
Did you read the paper? I don't see how you could walk away with the impression that this is "just correlation", let alone bullshit. Moreover, your quip about n=60 strikes me as the kind of comment made by people who don't know how research and statistics work. n=60 is actually pretty big for this kind of study (most cognitive studies involving fMRI, for instance, hover around n=20). Either way, simply looking at the…
http://andrewgelman.com/2014/08/04/correlation-even-imply-co... A correlation in your sample (especially at that size) does not imply a correlation in the population, even if you validate it with additional sham tests.
The study performed statistical hypothesis testing to determine that the means of the two groups are probably different.
Edit: and more to your point, correlation of the sample implies correlation of the population if the sample is representative. Is this the case for this particular paper? I don't know and neither does anyone else; that's why replication is the gold standard of scientific validity.