Earlier quoted context omitted.
Over time this means it all gets funneled into just a few families' pockets, until they own everything... Yes, this is a popular theory, but it doesn't appear to be happening. To quote Larry Summers: > the Forbes 400 list also provides only limited support for Piketty’s ideas that fortunes are patiently accumulated through reinvestment. When Forbes compared its list of the wealthiest Americans in 1982 and 2012, it fo…
The churn in the top .0001% means basically nothing as to how serious wealth accumulation is. It's a horrible indicator. Looking at the world cup results of 1982 (Italy, W. Germany, Poland, France) and 2014 (Germany, Argentina, Netherlands, Brazil), you could assume that there is a healthy amount of churn happening, so there's not really an accumulation of medals happening. Every country has a chance! In reality, the…
> a significant majority of members of the 1982 list would have qualified for the 2012 list if they had accumulated wealth at a real rate of even 4 percent a year.
Further, your world cup analogy shows how inequality of results is not strong evidence of gboudraias' claim: "Those with the most money can... make the most money. "
Owning a 2006 or 2010 world cup does not give you a greater ability to play soccer - the World cup inequality between Germany/Brazil and India/USA is purely meritocratic.