Earlier quoted context omitted.
So, cyclists can't physically cause road accidents that kill drivers? Interesting (and false :P)
I can't think of any scenario where a driver could kill somebody in an accident where the driver isn't at fault for it, except for cases where the cyclist at fault gets themselves killed. How does it work?
"In stories where the driver had been cited, the penalty’s meagerness defied belief, like the teenager in 2011 who drove into the 49-year-old cyclist John Przychodzen from behind on a road just outside Seattle, running over and killing him. The police issued only a $42 ticket for an “unsafe lane change” because the kid hadn’t been drunk and, as they saw it, had not been driving recklessly."
Kid kills cyclist, but doesn't get tried even for involuntary manslaughter. Had this kid used a gun instead of a car, you can be sure that the story would have a different ending.
I believe that's a direct, nearly EXACT example of a driver killing a cyclist in an accident and not getting charged despite quite likely being at fault. If the police issued him SOME kind of a citation it stands to reason he wasn't 100% in the right. Someone else paid with their life.
Here's another example in the article:
"...Amelie Le Moullac, 24, pedaling inside a bike lane in San Francisco’s SOMA district when a truck turned right and killed her. In these articles, I found a recurring phrase: to quote from The San Francisco Chronicle story about Ms. Le Moullac, “The truck driver stayed at the scene and was not cited.”"
How many more examples would you like to see? It takes me only a minute or two to dig these up as they're all over google. I don't have to go past the first page.