Personally I think the cool thing about these(and also fractals, which display this as iterations go to infinity) is that they have infinite lengths in a finite(though obviously infinitely subdividable) span.
Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
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Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#12Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#13Earlier quoted context omitted.
Cool! I didn't appreciate that. I think its interesting to see that behavior in an everyday Fourier series though.
I'm not sure that I'd call something with an infinite number of non-zero Fourier coefficients an "everyday" Fourier series. :)
This is why images get blurry when resized up! For some reason better algorithms never seem to become popular.
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#14This function produces an audio signal that sounds like an organ. https://gist.github.com/improv32/8414717 http://vocaroo.com/i/s13ZO9QOMULL
I am quite surprised it does not sound like white noise. Anyway, I played the output of that script through some filters, and this sounds nice: play -c 2 weierstrass.wav gain -12 loudness chorus 0.5 0.9 50 0.4 0.25 2 -t 60 0.32 0.4 2.3 -t 40 0.3 0.3 1.3 -s reverb gain 12
This will sound quite interesting, but it's a really bad approximation of the Weierstrass function! http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sin%28x%29+%2B+0.9*sin%...
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#15You can modify it slightly and get a function that has no integral, though it still has a well defined area under its curve (do the limit after the subtraction of the two otherwise-would-diverge sums).
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#16>The function has detail at every level, so zooming in on a piece of the curve does not show it getting progressively closer and closer to a straight line. Rather between any two points no matter how close, the function will not be monotone.
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#17Quick and dirty landscape/horizon generator for games?
See here for more: http://freespace.virgin.net/hugo.elias/models/m_perlin.htm
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#18Earlier quoted context omitted.
Cool! I didn't appreciate that. I think its interesting to see that behavior in an everyday Fourier series though.
I'm not sure that I'd call something with an infinite number of non-zero Fourier coefficients an "everyday" Fourier series. :)
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#19You can modify it slightly and get a function that has no integral, though it still has a well defined area under its curve (do the limit after the subtraction of the two otherwise-would-diverge sums).
Not sure what you mean by this, since your comment has no context -- there are no limits or sums in the link. However, even the humble Riemann integral would be able to find the area under the graph of a bounded function on a compact interval which is continuous on a set of full Lebesgue measure. Any other function only has a "well-defined area" for some seriously stunted notion of area; you can integrate more functi…
f(x) = sum[n = 0 to infinity]((1/2)^n sin((1/20)^n pi x))
It converges because each successive term is bounded by [-1/2, +1/2]. But if you integrate it you get: f(x) = sum[n = 0 to infinity](10^n / pi cos((1/20)^n pi x))
(Well... you get that if you play fast and loose about swapping the order of the integral and the sum)Which diverges because the input to the cosine function limits to 0 as n -> infinity, so the cos limits to 1, and we get 10+100+1000+10000...
But if you integrate from two points and delay doing the limit until after then you get
F(x1, x2)
= sum[n = 0 to infinity](10^n / pi (cos((1/20)^n pi x2) - cos((1/20)^n pi x1)))
= sum[n = 0 to infinity](10^n / pi (2*sin(pi/2 (1/20)^n (x1-x2))*sin(pi/2 (1/20)^n (x1+x2)))
Which, for large n, acts like: ~= sum[n = 0 to infinity](10^n / pi (2*(pi/2 (1/20)^n (x1-x2))*(pi/2 (1/20)^n (x1+x2)))
= sum[n = 0 to infinity]((1/40)^n pi/2 *(x1-x2)(x1+x2))
Which converges.Apologies for any math mistakes. This was all off the cuff. I wouldn't be surprised if some of the more general integration or summation strategies can also handle this case.
Re: Weierstrass functions: continuous but not differentiable anywhere
#20I was finding it hard to understand why it wasn't differentiable (guess my maths is getting a bit rusty) until I read the below[0] which helped it make sense to me: >The function has detail at every level, so zooming in on a piece of the curve does not show it getting progressively closer and closer to a straight line. Rather between any two points no matter how close, the function will not be monotone. [0] http://en…