Earlier quoted context omitted.
The 0.3 correlation described in the article is the correlation between a teacher's VAM score in a single class last year and this year. The author is arguing that because the measurement is noisy, we should ignore it. This is silly - it just means a single class-year's point estimate is noisy, and multiple class-years must be combined to form an accurate estimate. If you had 1/3 of your salary determined by the LOC…
The author is arguing that because the measurement is noisy, we should ignore it. Not quite.. Indeed - if 1/3 of my salary was determined by the number of kids in my class who can read better than when they are predicted to read at this age, I'd definitely try to make sure that reading skills improved. Keep in mind that "score on a reading test" and "reading skills" are not the same things. For instance, one would be…
True. Score on a reading test might be lower than actual reading skills due to a lack of test taking skills.
Then again, I can't think of any measurable quantity more highly correlated with reading skills than scoring high on a reading test. Do you have evidence that "principal's opinion of teacher" is better?
...we have a metric that very loosely correlates...
You are confused. GR shows that year on year correlations are weak (0.3), not that correlation between reading test and reading skills are weak.
You are correct that a certain nonzero amount of teaching test skills will be effective at improving scores. I see no reason to believe this amount will be large - do you?
Again, standardized tests are not the only gameable metric. Principal/student opinion is as well. Why do you believe they are less gameable and more accurate than directly measuring student ability?