While nothing good can be said about the design of DNSSEC here, it seems to me that the new np feature’s semantics are also misguided. I get it: if I own company.com and I’m not using foo.company.com, then maybe I should set np=reject on company.com’s DMARC rule so that no one can spoof email from it. But it seems odd that www.company.com should be considered present for this purpose even if it has no MX records. And…
> Why didn’t the DMARC spec say that a domain is “not present” if it lacks MX records? MX implies a domain can receive email, you don't need it to send email. A setup where company.example sends email from companymailings.example but sets a reply-to for support@company.example is perfectly valid (even if it's stupid and confusing). Plus there's that weird legacy behaviour of mail servers delivering to port 25 to the…
So shouldn’t this be done explicitly by setting a policy at _dmarc.companymailings.example instead of implicitly by setting at otherwise entirely useless record (of type A? some unused TXT variant?) at companymailings.example?