Yes. It's essentially the same as real estate property in that the petitioner asks the government to state that a given more-or-less well defined area is granted to their exclusive use. In those circumstances,
why wouldn't it be subject to taxes by the same government that is giving them the privilege of that sole use?
I'm not asserting that IP owners currently owe property taxes. I am asserting that if they've asked the government to declare that the property is theirs, and they're asking the government to help defend their granted rights, then they should have to pay for the operation of that government.
In short, if you want to have it both ways and receive the patent without paying taxes, fine. Just don't expect to use my taxpayer-supported court system to help you enforce your rights on it.