Earlier quoted context omitted.
Here is what I am confused about with regards to diagonalisation: Start with binary non-negative integers: 000 001 010 011 100 101 ... (goes to infinity) This set now includes all possible bit strings of infinite length since the way these are iteratively generated includes all possibilities. This is also an enumerable set by definition. Let's now reverse the bits and put them after a decimal. These are just real num…
> Start with binary non-negative integers: > 000 001 010 011 100 101 ... (goes to infinity) > This set now includes all possible bit strings of > infinite length No, it only contains the strings of finite length. There are infinitely many of them, but each one stops after a while. In particular, then n^th one only has log2(n) places before it then becomes all 0s. > This is also an enumerable set by definition. Yes. >…
[Prepend each string with infinite zeroes]
...000
...001
...010
...011
...100
...101
...000
Now all bit strings here have infinite length.
The set is still enumerable since this is just binary encoding mapping to the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ...}
The question still is if it covers all possible bit strings of infinite length.
For units place, we covered both zero and one. For (n+1)th place, we cover both zero and one together with all combinations for the first (n) bits. As n -> infinite, all possibilities get covered.
The question is if 111111111... is also there in this set. But isn't it there too?