While framed as a "black and mixed-race working class vs white middle class" conflict, the remainder of the article suggests that burgeoning recreational use of the pure drug informed removal of that drug from a drink where it was included in sub-therapeutic doses (9mg/drink vs 50-75mg in a recreational "dose" [0]). It's unclear to me, as written, how race was causal and why it's included as in the article. There are…
There is a lack of supporting evidence that race has historically been a deciding factor in US drug policy in the same way that there is a lack of supporting evidence for the historical existence of the Romans.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5614457/
https://www.case.org/system/files/media/file/Penn%20Stater%2...
https://eji.org/news/nixon-war-on-drugs-designed-to-criminal...