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Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

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Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#731

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Likewise Congress could clearly state that agencies are not allowed to interpret the gaps. If Congress was unhappy with how the executive branch was working, it could solve the problem easily and directly. So the Court, when making this decision, was not concerned about what’s “right” or even Constitutional. It showed its hand by disrupting existing rulemaking that has been going on and explicitly allowed by the Cour…

I am not surprised that conservative-leaning court has put their finger on the scale of what they always described as “activism of agencies” and “legislating from the bench” by pushing the congress to act - I see it as consistent with conservative principles. I am not saying I agree with it or condemn it - rather stating the path forward. I too would like congress to start acting the part. They have the tools.

They are fine with activism and activists themselves. They just want the activism to go their political opinion direction. It is not even subtle.

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#732

Earlier quoted context omitted.

As a legal dilettante I have some questions: What does this decision mean for court caseload going forward? If it will increase, how much? Is there budget for that?

It doesn't mean anything for court caseload. There seem to be a lot of posts in this thread that are misinterpreting what the judgement means. Here's what I understood from reading it: • This case does not affect Congress' ability to delegate defined lawmaking powers to the executive. Congress can continue to delegate whatever they want. • It will therefore not have any impact on the speed with which the US governmen…

>Because ambiguous rules would have to be decided on anyway

I think the implication by the OP was that they would now have to be decide by the court instead of by the executive branch agencies. Previously, those agency decisions could be brought to the court, but they didn't have to for an interpretation. That seems like a subtle but important nuance.

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#733
post #719

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Fundamentally there’s nothing wrong with the position of supreme court to push the responsibility of lawmaking back on congress. One could argue, similarly to overturning Roe, they're diverging from a very critical precedent which is going to trigger a flurry of lawsuits over the next couple years

That was actually addressed on Page 7 of the decision. They begin with "The stare decisis considerations most relevant here—“the quality of [the precedent’s] reasoning, the workability of the rule it established,..." and proceed to find the considerations "all weigh in favor of letting Chevron go" https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/23pdf/22-451_7m58.pdf If you read the decision on abortion, you will find they spen…

Arguing stare decisis was invalid when the reasoning behind even hearing the case is ideological was necessary- it essentially is the only reasoning they could make.

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#734

Congress can actually legislate the right of agencies to interpret the gaps in the laws back into effect - by passing a law that explicitly gives agencies this power. Just like congress can legislate abortion laws rather than leaving it to judicial precedence. Fundamentally there’s nothing wrong with the position of supreme court to push the responsibility of lawmaking back on congress.

The court decided this on statutory grounds because that's what this court likes to do: base decisions on the narrowest grounds possible. But it mentioned Marbury quite prominently and it's pretty clear that the court will not sustain a law that codifies Chevron.

sorry, can someone explain this to someone who gave up on the article at the first bullet point, nor had enough sleep (and so is too lazy to look up everything)

thanks!

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#735
post #720

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Where I'm from, our "supreme court" can overthrow congress legislation for not following the constitution. Is this the case here AND is this the case in the US (generally speaking)?

Yes, that's exactly how it works. The US Supreme Court can rule a law unconstitutional, and that's that.

So basically it's the same as here, the supreme court (which is appointed, not elected) has power over elected officials?

(Because they can decide what is constitutional or not)

Edit: I have more questions but for some reason I can't reply to your replies :(

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#736

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Can court override the power of congress to put Chevron into law? Have there been instances where court struck down a law passed by congress before?

i don't remember my government class exactly but i think the purpose of the us supreme court is to determine if a law is constitutional or not. I'm not sure if it can explicitly strike down a law but declaring it unconstitutional would be effectively the same.

> the purpose of the us supreme court is to determine if a law is constitutional or not

No, it’s to decide cases and controversies [1]. Deciding on constitutionality flows from that.

This case, for example, was decided more on the Administrative Procdures Act than on the Constitution.

[1] https://constitution.congress.gov/constitution/article-3/

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#737
post #730

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Yes, that's exactly how it works. The US Supreme Court can rule a law unconstitutional, and that's that.

Little known fact: Congress can actually legislate around that by removing the possibility of judicial review from the law itself.

Congress cannot do that.

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#738
post #735

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Yes, that's exactly how it works. The US Supreme Court can rule a law unconstitutional, and that's that.

So basically it's the same as here, the supreme court (which is appointed, not elected) has power over elected officials? (Because they can decide what is constitutional or not) Edit: I have more questions but for some reason I can't reply to your replies :(

> the supreme court (which is appointed, not elected) has power over elected officials?

In a well-designed system, both have power over each other. That is certainly true in the United States.

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#739

Congress can actually legislate the right of agencies to interpret the gaps in the laws back into effect - by passing a law that explicitly gives agencies this power. Just like congress can legislate abortion laws rather than leaving it to judicial precedence. Fundamentally there’s nothing wrong with the position of supreme court to push the responsibility of lawmaking back on congress.

> Congress can actually legislate the right of agencies to interpret the gaps in the laws back into effect - by passing a law that explicitly gives agencies this power. Congress can't actually legislate anything while it's held hostage by obstructionists and there's effectively zero chance that a bunch of republicans who want to dismantle the already inadequate regulations that keep entire communities from being pois…

> Congress can't actually legislate anything

Did you miss the hundreds of billions of dollars of legislating the Congress did this year?

Re: Supreme Court overturns 40-year-old "Chevron deference" doctrine

#740
post #730

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Yes, that's exactly how it works. The US Supreme Court can rule a law unconstitutional, and that's that.

Little known fact: Congress can actually legislate around that by removing the possibility of judicial review from the law itself.

Little known, I suspect, on account of being entirely false.
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