Earlier quoted context omitted.
Why would it be an equally good chance that only one exists?
It depends on what priors you put on things like planetary size and orbital periods. If your prior is uniform, then it is just as likely for this configuration to exist as any other and because the probability mass is uniformly distributed (e.g. every outcome is equally likely) then there's probably only one of it.
I fail to see how you arrived at this conclusion give the text that precedes it.