Earlier quoted context omitted.
That's a big revision from your previous comment >The "owner" of a piece of land does nothing to produce its value, they just take money for nothing because they hold a scarce resource As soon as anybody owns any piece of land or capital, they are not doing anything to produce any value that is derived from it, they are simply collecting money for controlling a scarce resource. Those two factors of production can cre…
> That's a big revision from your previous comment It's not, but semantic arguments are pointless. If you want to use "rent seeking" to mean something different from what it normally means, fine, I don't mind using different words. > As soon as anybody owns any piece of land or capital, they are not doing anything to produce any value that is derived from it, they are simply collecting money for controlling a scarce…
> Claims of ownership of land (or radio spectrum, or so on), if you mean chattel ownership, can't ever be legitimate, because people can't make land, only seize it.
These two claims aren't logically consistent. As a factor of production, land includes all natural resources. 100% of the input materials used for the production of a hammer are land, and so are 100% of the input materials used for the entire hammer supply chain. If you claim that ownership of land is never legitimate, then how can ownership of a hammer ever be legitimate if it's made of 100% land? Nobody made the iron or the wood in the hammer with their own hands.
I can see that you prefer to invent your own vocabulary, rather than use the long established vocabulary of economics. But that doesn't make the inconsistencies in your arguments dissapear. The only thing you've consistently expressed that a person can have a legitimate ownership claim over is labor (which yet again, takes us back to seizing the means of production).