Earlier quoted context omitted.
Over time it does not. A related concept in finance/trading is “drawdown”. A single trade can have a positive expected value. But over time, if you take a loss you have to get a bigger win to end up back where you started, because you have less capital to work with.
> Over time it does not. Yes, the article shows that almost certainly, any individual's wealth will approach 0 from repeatedly taking this gamble. However, the comments I replied to say: > But this is purely a result of the distribution of returns from a single toss. which I don't understand.
If the loser got 0.6666c instead of 0.6c, and the winner got $1.50, then over time you'd break even, on average.
And yet the expected return would apparently be 1.08333. If think the conclusion is that 'expected return' is a fallacy, you just can't add proabability-outcomes in this way to get an 'expected outcome'.