Earlier quoted context omitted.
Is this not a slippery slope fallacy?
It is not. Significant minorities of the anti-abortion movement are also anti-contraceptive. There are articles and even draft legislation published by these groups from 15+ years ago detailing the ultimate goal being bans on contraceptives. You could believe they can't achieve those goals, I guess, but believing they want to is not a fallacy in this context come on.
Many of them want to ban contraceptive methods they view as “abortifacient”. We can argue about whether they are right to give certain methods that label-but there are contraceptive methods nobody calls that, such as condoms. People are ignoring the distinction between “want to ban some methods of contraception” and “want to ban all methods of contraception”-almost nobody belongs to the second category. Few other than conservative Catholics are completely morally opposed to condoms, and very few of those want the state to enforce that particular moral judgement. From the logic of their own beliefs, condoms are a sexual sin but not the taking of innocent life, so there is not the same need for the state to ban it.