Earlier quoted context omitted.
Surely the law here should be pedantic here, no? Does the location where a server is physically located or the location where a company is registered count?
Or what if a company buys a set of previously-used-in-Belgium IP addresses and now uses them in France? Something like this happened on the cloud when they were running low on IPv4 addresses.
There's nothing at all preventing me from geolocating my /32 of v6 to anywhere at all I want.
Or chopping it into smaller subnets and then allocating those wherever.