Earlier quoted context omitted.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inequality_of_bargaining_power The idea is well known for hundreds of years, but here's a particularly salient quote for your line of thinking. ---- "In so far as the reduction of costs of production and distribution thus achieved is reflected in reduced prices, society as a whole ultimately benefits from the use of standard contracts… The use of contracts has, however, another aspect wh…
Workers have mechanisms to balance that power. E.g., forming a union, which could ensure the contract is more fair. I don't know what to make of the fact that they don't use them. In your opinion, is there a reason why something like a union couldn't be used to negate or modify non-compete clauses?
Basically non-compete negatives for the worker don't outweigh the costs & downsides of forming a union -for just this issue-. Forming a union, negotiating, membership, etc all have transaction costs. Also unions come in a bundle with negative effects too (corruption, forced to go along with decisions where you are in the minority opinion, etc).
So if there was a super light weight union that only focused on non compete, then maybe it could level bargaining power. But since unions have a cost and come with downsides, it's not used in practice today.